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- Anatomy and Physiology 0%
- Basic Care and Comfort 0%
- Case Studies 0%
- Health Promotion and Maintenance 0%
- Management of Care 0%
- Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 0%
- Physiological Adaptation 0%
- Psychosocial Integrity 0%
- Reduction of Risk Potential 0%
- Safety and Infection Control 0%
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Question 1 of 75
1. Question
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Hint: Recall the three major superficial veins commonly used for venipuncture in the antecubital fossa—the cephalic, basilic, and the communicating vein that connects them—when choosing the best answer.
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Question 2 of 75
2. Question
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Hint: Think of the heart’s natural pacemaker located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the upper chamber that receives systemic venous blood—the SA node lies in the wall of that atrium.
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Question 3 of 75
3. Question
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Hint: Good charting includes the patient’s exact words when reporting pain plus objective, observable signs—avoid vague summaries that interpret rather than document.
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Question 4 of 75
4. Question
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Hint: Consider developmental stage—infants under one year cannot grasp the concept of time-out, so use redirection and simple, gentle guidance instead of formal punishment.
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Question 5 of 75
5. Question
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Hint: Parents should know common, mild post‑vaccine reactions and appropriate home management—ask about safe use of antipyretics for fever after immunization and follow recommended dosing.
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Question 6 of 75
6. Question
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Hint: Focus on preventing urine stasis—regular, scheduled emptying of the bladder reduces bacterial proliferation and the risk of recurrent UTIs.
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Question 7 of 75
7. Question
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Hint: Think about how heating methods can create uneven hot spots in liquid and the risk of scalding an infant—choose the safest warming practice to avoid burns.
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Question 8 of 75
8. Question
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Hint: Use a patient-centered, motivational approach—assess readiness and offer information/resources rather than forcing actions, assuming medical orders, or lecturing.
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Question 9 of 75
9. Question
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Hint: Use age-appropriate explanations to reduce fear and increase cooperation—preparing a school-age child by describing what will happen in simple, concrete terms helps them feel more in control.
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Question 10 of 75
10. Question
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Hint: Focus on major type 2 diabetes risk factors like metabolic syndrome—particularly dyslipidemia with low HDL—and which ethnic groups have higher baseline risk; these clues point to the highest-risk individual.
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Question 11 of 75
11. Question
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Hint: Think about the primary goal of quality control in the lab—what directly affects patient care and clinical decision-making: ensuring test results are accurate and reliable.
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Question 12 of 75
12. Question
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Hint: Prioritize emotional support and respect for the patient’s autonomous decision while facilitating communication between family members rather than escalating legally or attempting to change the patient’s choice.
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Question 13 of 75
13. Question
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Hint: Address the situation directly but discreetly—seek clarification with the nurse in private first to resolve the potential breach and give an opportunity to correct the behavior before escalating.
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Question 14 of 75
14. Question
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Hint: Remember that a competent patient’s informed refusal takes precedence—your role is to advocate and document the refusal and promptly communicate it to the prescriber while offering appropriate alternatives and support.
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Question 15 of 75
15. Question
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Hint: Prioritize patient safety and the integrity of informed consent—intervene immediately if you observe potential coercion, undue influence, or that the patient’s questions are being dismissed.
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Question 16 of 75
16. Question
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Hint: Focus on the ethical principle of patient autonomy and the legal weight of an advance directive—acknowledging that the patient’s documented wishes guide care decisions even when family members are involved.
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Question 17 of 75
17. Question
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Hint: Consider the ethical and legal obligation to protect patient privacy—respond in a way that maintains confidentiality and avoids discussing another family’s decisions.
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Question 18 of 75
18. Question
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Hint: Patients have a right to understand procedures before surgery; if they express uncertainty after consent, the nurse should facilitate clarification by bringing back the provider who obtained consent to explain.
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Question 19 of 75
19. Question
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Hint: Consider the ethical duty that emphasizes “do no harm”—the obligation to avoid causing injury and to prevent intentional harm to patients rather than actively promoting benefits.
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Question 20 of 75
20. Question
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Hint: Think about the principle that emphasizes respect for a patient’s right to make their own healthcare decisions and requires providing information so they can consent or refuse.
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Question 21 of 75
21. Question
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Hint: Prioritize honoring the patient’s end-of-life wishes by collaborating with the interdisciplinary team to safely accommodate spiritual or ceremonial requests while addressing unit policies and clinical needs.
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Question 22 of 75
22. Question
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Hint: PCA refers to the patient having control over dosing, so choose the option that uses the word meaning “control” and the term for pain relief (analgesic), not “communicated” or “anesthetic”.
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Question 23 of 75
23. Question
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Hint: Remember that “parenteral” means nutrition delivered by a route that bypasses the gastrointestinal tract—think vascular access rather than oral or enteral methods.
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Question 24 of 75
24. Question
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Hint: Think about the delivery method and infusion time—one is a rapid bolus given directly into the line, while the other is a secondary infusion that delivers medication over minutes via the primary IV fluid.
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Question 25 of 75
25. Question
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Hint: Think of the pharmacokinetic term that describes the interval from drug administration until the first measurable therapeutic effect—distinct from peak level, steady state, or the elimination half-life.
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Question 26 of 75
26. Question
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Hint: Think of the Controlled Substances Act grouping as “schedules” determined by abuse potential and accepted medical use—recall how many schedules are standardly listed in pharmacology and regulatory references.
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Question 27 of 75
27. Question
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Hint: Remember that “TID” means three times a day—multiply the number of puffs per dose by three to find the daily total.
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Question 28 of 75
28. Question
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Hint: Remember that “PRN” is an abbreviation from a Latin phrase used when medications are given based on patient symptoms or need rather than on a fixed schedule.
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Question 29 of 75
29. Question
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Hint: Contrast “throughout the body” with effects limited to the specific location where a drug is given—think about the phrase describing the physical point of administration.
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Question 30 of 75
30. Question
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Hint: In pharmacokinetics, the duration of action is linked to how long it takes the drug’s plasma concentration to fall to about half its level—this parameter helps determine dosing intervals.
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Question 31 of 75
31. Question
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Hint: Consider the goal of palliative care: it prioritizes patient comfort and managing distressing symptoms rather than curing the underlying disease or preventing its onset.
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Question 32 of 75
32. Question
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Hint: Use the basic dose–volume formula: required volume (mL) = ordered dose (mg) ÷ concentration (mg/mL); perform that division to find the correct milliliters to administer.
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Question 33 of 75
33. Question
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Hint: Remember that type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition that can present at any age, so don’t assume it’s limited to children. Type 2 is more common in adults but age alone doesn’t fully exclude either type.
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Question 34 of 75
34. Question
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Hint: Consider how chronic hyperglycemia affects neutrophil function, circulation, and wound healing—these physiological changes increase risk for what common complication?
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Question 35 of 75
35. Question
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Hint: Recall that Bordetella pertussis causes a pediatric illness marked by paroxysmal coughing spells with a characteristic high-pitched inspiratory “whoop” and is preventable by vaccination.
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Question 36 of 75
36. Question
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Hint: Alopecia is a dermatologic term related to the scalp and hair follicles—direct your attention to a hair-related change rather than parasites, ear anatomy, or digestive symptoms.
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Question 37 of 75
37. Question
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Hint: Think about how children’s bones are more pliable—this injury is an incomplete or bending-type fracture where the bone cracks on one side but doesn’t break all the way through, commonly seen in long bones.
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Question 38 of 75
38. Question
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Hint: Consider sudden unilateral facial muscle weakness due to dysfunction of a specific cranial nerve (the facial nerve), not an arm paralysis, stroke subtype, or cerebral palsy.
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Question 39 of 75
39. Question
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Hint: Think of the condition characterized by elevated intraocular pressure that can damage the optic nerve and often causes progressive peripheral vision loss.
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Question 40 of 75
40. Question
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Hint: Recall the principle for impaled objects: do not remove the object—stabilize and control bleeding while preparing for safe transfer to definitive care.
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Question 41 of 75
41. Question
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Hint: Think about age-related loss of brain volume that increases tension on the bridging veins, making them more susceptible to tearing even with minor head trauma.
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Question 42 of 75
42. Question
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Hint: Consider the long-term effects of poorly controlled diabetes—ongoing hyperglycemia damages nephrons over years, producing a progressive, often irreversible decline in kidney function rather than a sudden or easily reversible event.
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Question 43 of 75
43. Question
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Hint: Prioritize giving the patient an immediate, accessible way to summon help—ensuring they can call for assistance reduces unassisted movements that often lead to falls.
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Question 44 of 75
44. Question
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Hint: Routine peristomal care relies on gentle cleansing with plain soap and water rather than antiseptics or altering the usual barrier-fitting technique.
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Question 45 of 75
45. Question
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Hint: Think about how toileting needs (getting up, often at night) combined with reduced visual acuity create a greater fall risk than either issue alone—multiple concurrent deficits amplify danger.
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Question 46 of 75
46. Question
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Hint: Emphasize fall prevention and safe patient handling—encourage the patient to use available help or call for assistance before attempting to get out of bed to reduce injury risk.
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Question 47 of 75
47. Question
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Hint: Watch for skin color changes and signs of impaired perfusion or cold injury—mottling or blanching indicates the cold should be removed to prevent tissue damage.
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Question 48 of 75
48. Question
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Hint: The combination of hallucinations, seizures, and marked autonomic hyperactivity points to progression into delirium tremens—the most severe stage of alcohol withdrawal.
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Question 49 of 75
49. Question
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Hint: Emphasize consistent boundaries and firm, predictable consequences to manage manipulative or violating behaviors common in this disorder.
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Question 50 of 75
50. Question
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Hint: Consider the term that describes physical symptoms influenced by psychological factors—mind–body interaction—rather than saying stress is the only cause of these conditions.
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Question 51 of 75
51. Question
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Hint: In the crisis stage, prioritize immediate physical safety and addressing acute injuries before focusing on long-term planning, legal steps, or resource education.
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Question 52 of 75
52. Question
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Hint: Sensory overload typically produces acute difficulty processing incoming stimuli, leading to confusion and impaired orientation rather than mood changes like depression.
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Question 53 of 75
53. Question
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Hint: Consider the grief stage characterized by idealizing the deceased and focusing only on their positive traits, often as a way to protect against the pain of loss.
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Question 54 of 75
54. Question
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Hint: Focus on palliative care’s primary aim: relieving symptoms and improving quality of life for seriously ill patients, which can begin before the terminal phase rather than being limited to after death or funeral planning.
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Question 55 of 75
55. Question
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Hint: Think about the CDC data highlighting higher depression rates in the midlife period—adults experiencing accumulated chronic stressors, caregiving responsibilities, and rising chronic health problems are most affected.
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Question 56 of 75
56. Question
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Hint: Think about a long-standing impairment in cognition or thought processes (a chronic cognitive disorder), which differs from purely physical, psychotic, or end-of-life care categories.
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Question 57 of 75
57. Question
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Hint: For a newly created AV fistula, routinely check for patency by palpation and auscultation—feel for a continuous vibration and listen for a rushing sound that indicate a functioning access.
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Question 58 of 75
58. Question
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Hint: Think about the goal of the device—promote slow, deep inhalations for lung expansion and then follow the breathing session with a deliberate cough to mobilize secretions.
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Question 59 of 75
59. Question
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Hint: When “stripping” a JP drain, direct any clots toward the collection device—think about clearing the line away from the incision so drainage flows into the reservoir.
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Question 60 of 75
60. Question
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Hint: Controlling moisture and secretions at the stoma—through regular, appropriate suctioning and drying—helps prevent maceration and skin breakdown around a tracheostomy site.
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Question 61 of 75
61. Question
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Hint: This maneuver assesses meningeal irritation by flexing the hip to 90 degrees and then passively extending the knee to elicit posterior thigh pain or resistance.
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Question 62 of 75
62. Question
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Hint: Consider which dressing intentionally adheres to necrotic tissue and removes it when changed—this is the principle of mechanical debridement used for wound cleansing.
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Question 63 of 75
63. Question
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Hint: Consider cancer staging components: T describes the primary tumor’s size/extent, N refers to regional lymph node involvement, and M indicates whether there is distant spread of disease.
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Question 64 of 75
64. Question
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Hint: Consider effects of immobility, spinal cord injury, and common pain medications on bowel motility—preventing constipation and fecal impaction is an important preventative nursing action.
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Question 65 of 75
65. Question
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Hint: A lesion at the C8 cervical level affects motor and sensory function in both the upper and lower extremities—consider a deficit that involves all four limbs.
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Question 66 of 75
66. Question
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Hint: Remove the most contaminated items first (hands/gloves), then outer clothing, and keep respiratory protection until later so you avoid contaminating your face prematurely.
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Question 67 of 75
67. Question
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Hint: In an unfamiliar neighborhood, prioritize limiting access points and maintaining a physical barrier between yourself and potential threats—control your vehicle environment to reduce opportunity for opportunistic entry.
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Question 68 of 75
68. Question
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Hint: Focus on the fundamental goal of emergency planning—what outcome protects people and minimizes harm during a crisis, above meeting regulations.
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Question 69 of 75
69. Question
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Hint: Use gloves whenever you may contact bodily fluids or need to maintain aseptic technique for feeding equipment to protect the infant and prevent contamination.
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Question 70 of 75
70. Question
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Hint: Think “source control”—contain the infectious particles at their origin during transport rather than relying on others along the route to wear respirators.
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Question 71 of 75
71. Question
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Hint: Use standard precautions: don gloves before handling and dispose of contaminated urinary drainage devices in the appropriate biohazard/infectious waste receptacle—not regular trash.
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Question 72 of 75
72. Question
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Hint: Remember that standard (universal) precautions are based on potential exposure to blood and body fluids — consider whether infectious agents can still pose a risk during postmortem care.
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Question 73 of 75
73. Question
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Hint: During the primary survey prioritize full exposure to assess for hidden injuries and bleeding while maintaining the patient’s dignity and hypothermia prevention.
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Question 74 of 75
74. Question
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Hint: Assess distal perfusion with capillary refill— a brisk refill (generally under about 2 seconds) is a quick clinical sign of adequate circulation to the foot.
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Question 75 of 75
75. Question
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Hint: Prioritize immediate, non-oral interventions that assess cardiac rhythm and address local tissue swelling/bleeding rather than offering PO challenges first.
