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- Anatomy and Physiology 0%
- Basic Care and Comfort 0%
- Case Studie 0%
- Health Promotion and Maintenance 0%
- Management of Care 0%
- Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies 0%
- Physiological Adaptation 0%
- Psychosocial Integrity 0%
- Reduction of Risk Potential 0%
- Safety and Infection Control 0%
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Question 1 of 75
1. Question
CorrectIncorrectHint
Hint: Recall that “dorsal” refers to the back; when the patient’s back is against the bed or table they are lying on their back—face up—so use the term that matches that orientation.
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Question 2 of 75
2. Question
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Hint: Think “midline” or “sagittal” division—this plane separates left and right, unlike the frontal (anterior/posterior) or transverse (upper/lower) planes.
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Question 3 of 75
3. Question
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Hint: Remember that the axilla is the anatomical fold between the upper arm and the chest—axillary temperatures require placing the probe in direct contact with the skin in that area for accurate reading.
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Question 4 of 75
4. Question
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Hint: Remember that the dorsalis pedis pulse lies on the dorsum of the foot, is routinely checked when assessing peripheral vascular status, and can be absent congenitally—consider the choice that acknowledges all these facts.
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Question 5 of 75
5. Question
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Hint: Consider how metabolic rate and autonomic control change from infancy to adulthood—heart rate is highest in newborns and generally declines as the cardiovascular system matures.
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Question 6 of 75
6. Question
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Hint: Accuracy of heart rate measurement depends on rhythm regularity—short sampling intervals (like 15 seconds) and simple multiplication increase error, so use a longer count when rhythm is irregular.
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Question 7 of 75
7. Question
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Hint: Think about what produces the audible sounds you hear with a stethoscope during cuff deflation—they originate from turbulent blood flow and vibrations in the artery wall rather than being limited to a specific cardiac specialist or only one phase of the cardiac cycle.
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Question 8 of 75
8. Question
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Hint: For optimal visualization and access to the anorectal area, think of a position that places the patient prone with the hips elevated and knees flexed to expose the perineum.
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Question 9 of 75
9. Question
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Hint: For neonates, select the standard capillary site that minimizes risk of nerve or bone injury and is routinely used for newborn screening and heel sticks; avoid fingertips and deep venous sites like the AC.
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Question 10 of 75
10. Question
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Hint: Focus on the physiologic consequence of large blood loss—assess for signs of decreased intravascular volume and impaired perfusion when choosing the priority nursing diagnosis.
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Question 11 of 75
11. Question
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Hint: Think about who is legally appointed to act as the patient’s surrogate via an advance directive or durable power of attorney for health care when the patient lacks decision-making capacity.
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Question 12 of 75
12. Question
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Hint: Informed consent and patient autonomy require that individuals be given full access to their medical information so they can make informed decisions; withholding details because of age or to avoid anxiety is not supported.
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Question 13 of 75
13. Question
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Hint: Leaving your assigned shift abruptly without notifying the RN supervisor or arranging safe transfer of care constitutes patient abandonment—a serious breach of professional responsibility.
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Question 14 of 75
14. Question
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Hint: Consider each functional deficit—motor weakness and swallowing—and which rehabilitation disciplines address mobility, self-care, and safe oral intake; discharge planning should be comprehensive and interdisciplinary.
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Question 15 of 75
15. Question
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Hint: Use the principle of triage/ABCs and address symptoms that suggest an immediate life‑threatening condition (e.g., acute chest pain) before comfort or mobility needs.
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Question 16 of 75
16. Question
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Hint: Apply the ABCs and triage acute physiologic threats before routine or psychosocial needs—distinguish life‑threatening and safety issues from comfort or emotional concerns when prioritizing care.
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Question 17 of 75
17. Question
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Hint: Think about when documentation best reflects what was actually done and observed—documentation should be contemporaneous with care but only after the intervention and assessment are completed to ensure accuracy and completeness.
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Question 18 of 75
18. Question
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Hint: “qid” means four times a day; select four ambulation opportunities that are evenly spaced—about every 4 hours throughout the waking day.
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Question 19 of 75
19. Question
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Hint: The term “stat” indicates an urgent, time-sensitive task—prioritize rapid action to preserve specimen integrity and follow the RN’s directive without delay.
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Question 20 of 75
20. Question
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Hint: Remember that the abbreviation “HS” stands for hora somni—give medications at the patient’s usual time of sleep/bedtime rather than immediately after meals or simply at shift end.
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Question 21 of 75
21. Question
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Hint: Recognize the medication/nursing abbreviation “tid” — it means three times a day, so pick the option that lists three appropriately spaced reminders during the day.
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Question 22 of 75
22. Question
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Hint: Think about the characteristics of the initial (induction/analgesia) stage of anesthesia—patients often remain responsive and exhibit mood changes like euphoria with progressive drowsiness and dizziness before deeper respiratory changes occur.
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Question 23 of 75
23. Question
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Hint: Think of ketamine’s characteristic dissociative anesthesia—watch for emergence reactions such as hallucinations, vivid dreams, or delirium rather than classic opioid or sedative side effects.
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Question 24 of 75
24. Question
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Hint: Break down the term—“xero-” refers to dryness and “-stomia” relates to the mouth; consider a condition caused by decreased saliva production affecting oral moisture and comfort.
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Question 25 of 75
25. Question
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Hint: Prioritize safety and proper line assessment—when a central catheter is not patent, follow your facility’s established troubleshooting and notification protocol rather than improvising infusion or invasive measures.
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Question 26 of 75
26. Question
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Hint: Consider the metabolic effects of starting TPN—rapid infusion of dextrose can cause hyperglycemia, which often presents with headache, blurred vision, and tachycardia; check a bedside glucose.
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Question 27 of 75
27. Question
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Hint: For radiation-damaged skin, the priority is gentle cleansing with plain water and careful drying to minimize irritation—avoid harsh antiseptics, ointments, or powders that can trap moisture or further damage tissue.
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Question 28 of 75
28. Question
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Hint: For symptomatic hypoglycemia in a patient who is awake and able to swallow, the priority is to provide a quick-acting oral carbohydrate; reserve IV dextrose for those who cannot protect their airway or swallow safely.
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Question 29 of 75
29. Question
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Hint: Think acute hemolytic transfusion reaction—look for sudden onset systemic signs like chills and new back/flank pain occurring during the transfusion rather than gradual volume overload or isolated bradycardia.
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Question 30 of 75
30. Question
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Hint: Focus on rights that ensure the correct medication is given to the correct patient in the correct way and at the correct time — it’s about the drug, dose, route, and timing rather than which staff member or paperwork is involved.
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Question 31 of 75
31. Question
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Hint: Localized pain with cool, pale skin and a slowed infusion rate suggests fluid is escaping into the surrounding tissues rather than inflammation of the vein—assess the IV site for swelling and compare with the opposite hand.
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Question 32 of 75
32. Question
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Hint: Emphasize radiation safety principles—time, distance, and shielding—to limit others’ exposure, which influences room placement and visitor access.
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Question 33 of 75
33. Question
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Hint: Luteinizing hormone surges trigger ovulation, so monitoring LH is commonly used when assessing or timing fertility and conception efforts.
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Question 34 of 75
34. Question
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Hint: Remember rotavirus is a viral illness, so antimicrobials are not indicated—management focuses on hydration and symptomatic care rather than antibiotics.
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Question 35 of 75
35. Question
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Hint: Remember that patients with multiple sclerosis are heat-sensitive—an increase in body temperature can temporarily worsen neurologic symptoms (Uhthoff phenomenon), so advise against interventions that raise core temperature.
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Question 36 of 75
36. Question
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Hint: Think of bland, low‑fiber foods used for gastroenteritis that correspond to B, R, A, and T—consider a potassium‑rich fruit, a plain starchy grain, a soft fruit purée, and a dry bread item.
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Question 37 of 75
37. Question
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Hint: Think about what counts as objective, evidence-based education for families—providing up-to-date research and clear explanations of the therapy’s purpose and outcomes helps them understand and consent. Keep the focus on factual information rather than delegating communication to others or anecdotal testimonies.
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Question 38 of 75
38. Question
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Hint: Remember that fever increases metabolic rate and insensible fluid losses, so supporting adequate hydration is a primary nursing intervention to prevent dehydration and help regulate temperature.
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Question 39 of 75
39. Question
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Hint: Profuse sweating with volume depletion and electrolyte disturbances points to a condition where the body still sweats and shows signs of dehydration and heat-related weakness, unlike the form that causes loss of sweating and altered mental status.
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Question 40 of 75
40. Question
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Hint: Think of a compensatory, deep and rapid breathing pattern seen with metabolic acidosis (like diabetic ketoacidosis) aimed at blowing off CO2 to correct pH.
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Question 41 of 75
41. Question
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Hint: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion—think peripheral edema and signs of fluid retention rather than primary pulmonary symptoms like cough or nocturnal dyspnea.
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Question 42 of 75
42. Question
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Hint: Remember that HDL is the “good” cholesterol that helps remove plaque, while LDL is the “bad” cholesterol that contributes to arterial buildup—statements that reverse these roles indicate misunderstanding.
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Question 43 of 75
43. Question
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Hint: For incontinent clients with impaired skin, prompt cleansing of the perineal area after episodes of urination or bowel movements is essential to remove irritants and prevent maceration and breakdown.
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Question 44 of 75
44. Question
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Hint: Monitor trends in urine output as a direct indicator of renal perfusion; an acute drop in hourly urine output despite ongoing IV fluids is a priority concern that warrants immediate provider notification.
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Question 45 of 75
45. Question
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Hint: Think “slow-wave” deep sleep characterized by delta waves and marked difficulty in arousal—this is non-REM deep sleep that is deeper than Stage 1 and 2 but not REM.
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Question 46 of 75
46. Question
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Hint: Whistling from a hearing aid usually indicates feedback from a poor fit or poor seal in the ear canal—adjust the device placement before assuming mechanical failure or battery issues.
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Question 47 of 75
47. Question
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Hint: Convert cups to milliliters (1 cup ≈ 240 mL) and include only liquid-containing items for intake; count urine for output but routine formed stools are not recorded as fluid output.
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Question 48 of 75
48. Question
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Hint: Focus on the legal term for nonconsensual, harmful or offensive physical contact—actual touching without permission rather than just a threat or omission.
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Question 49 of 75
49. Question
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Hint: Think about the term used when people are categorized by physical or biological traits (like skin color or body structure), as opposed to shared customs, language, or numerical status.
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Question 50 of 75
50. Question
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Hint: Consider how you would modify your communication to match a patient’s sensory or language needs—choosing an alternative modality (e.g., written or visual aids) helps overcome a hearing impairment barrier.
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Question 51 of 75
51. Question
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Hint: Consider how a person might consciously amplify strengths or develop alternate skills to make up for a real or perceived weakness rather than denying or blaming others.
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Question 52 of 75
52. Question
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Hint: Think about making a broad assumption about an individual based solely on their membership in a group—assigning characteristics to someone because of age rather than their actual abilities.
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Question 53 of 75
53. Question
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Hint: Focus on the statement “if you let my baby live…” — making promises or striking a deal with a higher power in hopes of changing the outcome is characteristic of one Kubler‑Ross stage.
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Question 54 of 75
54. Question
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Hint: Open-ended questions invite elaboration and often begin with words like “what,” “how,” or “describe,” rather than eliciting a yes/no or a specific factual response (time/date).
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Question 55 of 75
55. Question
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Hint: Pay attention to facial tension and a rigid, guarded posture—grimacing combined with stiffness often signals hostility or irritability rather than openness or compassion.
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Question 56 of 75
56. Question
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Hint: Think of the initial stage of grief and a common defense mechanism in which a person refuses to acknowledge the reality of a painful diagnosis, blocking awareness to protect themselves.
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Question 57 of 75
57. Question
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Hint: Think of a temperature pattern with alternating periods of fever and normal readings — the fever rises but then returns to the patient’s baseline (often at least once every 24 hours).
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Question 58 of 75
58. Question
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Hint: Think about normal circadian/diurnal patterns in body temperature—core temperature typically rises throughout the day by about 1°F, so small evening increases are often expected rather than pathological.
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Question 59 of 75
59. Question
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Hint: Think about which site best reflects core body temperature by sampling the tympanic membrane’s vascular supply—ensure the ear canal is clear for an accurate reading.
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Question 60 of 75
60. Question
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Hint: Anxiety triggers sympathetic activation and often leads to an increased respiratory rate—watch for rapid, shallow breathing (hyperventilation) rather than slow or positional breathing difficulties.
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Question 61 of 75
61. Question
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Hint: Differentiate these adventitious sounds by when they occur in the respiratory cycle—crackles (rales) are classically heard with inspiration, whereas rhonchi are more associated with expiration and airway secretions.
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Question 62 of 75
62. Question
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Hint: To avoid the patient consciously altering their breathing, assess respirations unobtrusively—often by appearing to measure another vital sign while quietly counting breaths for a full minute.
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Question 63 of 75
63. Question
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Hint: Remember the diagnostic thresholds for hypertension — values at or above systolic 140 mm Hg or diastolic 90 mm Hg indicate elevated BP that would fit essential hypertension before treatment.
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Question 64 of 75
64. Question
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Hint: Anthropometric measures assess physical body dimensions—size, mass, and proportions (such as height or circumference)—and are different from physiological vital signs like pulse or temperature.
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Question 65 of 75
65. Question
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Hint: For infants, peripheral pulses can be difficult to palpate accurately, so caregivers commonly auscultate at the apical point (the heart’s point of maximal impulse) using a stethoscope to count the rate.
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Question 66 of 75
66. Question
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Hint: When feeding a patient on complete bed rest, use the semi‑Fowler’s/upright head‑of‑bed position to minimize aspiration risk. Think about the typical degree range defined for semi‑Fowler’s.
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Question 67 of 75
67. Question
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Hint: For shortness of breath, think about using an upright position that increases chest expansion and uses gravity to decrease abdominal pressure on the diaphragm to improve ventilation.
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Question 68 of 75
68. Question
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Hint: Remember Sims’ is a modified side-lying posture with the patient on their side, weight shifted forward onto the hip and shoulder—commonly used for enemas and rectal exams.
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Question 69 of 75
69. Question
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Hint: Trendelenburg means positioning the patient with the head lower than the feet to promote venous return and raise blood pressure.
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Question 70 of 75
70. Question
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Hint: Never alter or remove original charting; use a dated, signed late entry or addendum that documents when the symptom was reported and when you are making the correction.
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Question 71 of 75
71. Question
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Hint: Afebrile means below established fever cutoffs—recall fever is generally a rectal temperature ≥100.4°F (or oral ≥38°C), and axillary readings are typically lower than oral, so compare each measurement to those standards.
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Question 72 of 75
72. Question
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Hint: Use the “teach-back” or return-demonstration approach: model the skill first, then have the patient perform it under supervision so you can correct technique and confirm comprehension.
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Question 73 of 75
73. Question
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Hint: This presentation suggests possible sepsis—prioritize early sepsis bundle steps: rapid isotonic fluid resuscitation (~30 mL/kg), obtaining blood cultures before giving antibiotics when feasible, and ensuring adequate large-bore IV access.
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Question 74 of 75
74. Question
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Hint: Treat fever first with a scheduled antipyretic by the least invasive route if the patient can take oral meds; avoid external cooling measures that provoke shivering and increase metabolic demand.
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Question 75 of 75
75. Question
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Hint: Identify which measurement is moving closer to normal physiologic targets—remember key resuscitation goals include MAP ≥65 mm Hg, urine output ≈0.5 mL/kg/hr, decreasing lactate, and reduction of tachycardia toward a normal heart rate.
